I have two components:
mydomain runs a nextjs along with next-auth.js
api.mydomain runs a back-end API that mydomain's client points to make some request
Mydomain is authenticated via the Next.js's Github provider, and as long as I get next-auth.js creates a JWT session which is sent to the client as a form of a cookie (correct me if I'm wrong). Then, if you need some info about your authentication, you can use the hook useSession on front side in order to access your JWT session.
My frontend is not using the api nextjs' functionality though: it communicates with an API through axios HTTP calls, which is deployed separately. What I would like to do is passing the Nextjs' JWT to my backend in order to verify authentication and authorization, but I'm not sure if it's possible, safe and recommended.
So: how could I accomplish that? The only alternative I see is generating a separated JWT token within the JWT callback, pass back to the front and use it for my calls, but I see it like a redundant thing actually, like embedding a JWT within a JWT.
Here is what I'd like to do in summary:
Related
I'm implementing a project with Supabase and Next.js where I would like to have the authenticated client make an API request to an endpoint. At that endpoint, I'd like to be able to get the user from the database.
My understanding is that on the client, I can call
supabase.auth.session().access_token
to get the JWT. I could include that token in my /api/ request, but how would I look up the user in the server-side function?
I tried using the service key and calling
supabase.auth.api.getUser('that token that I sent from the client')
but that doesn't seem to be the appropriate use.
Any help would be greatly appreciated!
(I don't want to use the client-side query with row-level security because I want to make external API calls from the server.)
I've been going through this tutorial which shows how to secure a single page application using several scenarios going from simple to our own Authorization Server that delegates authentication to a provider. The first scenario uses the Authorization Code Grant to log the user in.
Suppose we replace Facebook's OAuth Server with our own in this case and configure it to return a JWT token.
Which OAuth flow should the SPA use if it wants to use the JWT token to secure requests through an edge server that load balances between resources servers?
Also how should spring boot / spring security be configured if we want to use the JWT token to replace the replace the default JSESSION and CSRF support in spring? IIUC the JWT token can be used as a replacement to both of these features.
Update
Based on Manish's answer assuming we are using OAuth 2 implicit flow we:
Put the #EnableResourceServer annotation on the Resource Server
Use an OpenID Connect client to implement the implicity flow
So once this is done are POST request secure assuming each request includes the JWT token as a Bearer Header, or do we need to also configure CSRF?
It will depend on how much your application is sensitive to security but Implicit flow is recommended for pubic client (SPA).
Tutorial is based Authorization Code flow and if you will replace Facebook with your STS, it will still use Authorization Code flow because #EnableOAuth2Sso store the JWT token on server and send the cookie to browser and it also uses refresh token to get the new JWT token. It is a customize flow to implement the Authorization Code flow with public client (SPA) based on API gateway pattern.
To implement the implicit flow - Do not use the #EnableOAuth2Sso at server side, just expose the REST API and secure it with #EnableResourceServer. And you need to use the oidc-client to implement the implicit flow link is here https://github.com/IdentityModel/oidc-client-js
CSRF protection is only required if you will store JWT token or session identifier in the browser's cookie.
I've been reading through a bunch of documentation for using OAuth with Azure AD, but am still completely confused about how to properly implement things for my situation. Hopefully someone can steer me in the right direction.
I have created an ASP.NET Web API application that uses the EWS Managed API to access Exchange on behalf of different users. My application exposes endpoints such as /Mailbox/Messages and /Appointments with the intent that some front end web application will eventually use them to retrieve a user's emails and appointments. Currently the endpoints are working using basic http authentication, but I'd like to update them to use OAuth. The application has been registered in my Azure AD instance and I've configured it to require the "Access mailboxes as the signed-in user via Exchange Web Services" API permission.
Since the front end hasn't been implemented yet, I've been trying to test by manually calling the authentication endpoint. This prompts me to log in and provide consent. If I consent, I'm redirected to the callback URL that I provided when I registered the app with the authorization code contained in the query parameters. I'm still not quite sure how I'm supposed to be using this callback, but for the sake of testing I currently have the callback redeem the authorization code for an access token. This is done by calling the AcquireTokenByAuthorizationCode method on an instance of the AuthenticationContext class and providing my application's id and secret. Again, just for the sake of testing I return the access token to the browser. I can then call my aforementioned endpoints (after some modifications) with this access token and get the emails for the user. I'm guessing much of this is not the correct way to be doing things.
Some of my points of confusion:
What should the callback that I registered in Azure AD actually be doing when it gets the authorization code? Is this intended for a different type of application? Perhaps one that isn't just playing the role of a middle man.
I'm trying to make my application somewhat RESTful, so I don't want to have to maintain the access tokens on my end between requests. As such, does it make sense for my endpoints to expect that the access token be provided in the authentication header for each request? If so, does that mean the front end application should be responsible acquiring the access token and passing it to me?
Being completely new to OAuth and Azure, I'm not sure if any other details are pertinent, but I can provide more information as needed.
What you are implementing is this scenario: https://learn.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/active-directory/active-directory-authentication-scenarios#daemon-or-server-application-to-web-api
Here's how it works:
Your client app redirects the user to sign in at the authorization endpoint
Your client app gets back an authorization code (if using the auth code grant flow, there are others)
The client app exchanges the code for an access token for your API app
It will need to provide its client id and secret along with the code and the API's resource URI to get it
The client app calls to your API app, passing the access token in the Authorization header
Your API app then validates the access token, and requests for another access token from Azure AD for the Exchange API
It will pass the access token sent by the client app, along with its client id and secret and the Exchange API's resource URI to Azure AD
Your API app receives an access token so you can call to the Exchange API as the user
And to answer your two questions:
Authorization code flow is not used with APIs, only with apps that have a user signing in, thus the redirect URL is basically never used
Your API can and must expect and authenticate the access token for it to be in every request. But the access token it uses to call the Exchange API can and should be cached on the API's side. This is provided out-of-the-box with ADAL, though the tokens are only in memory.
I have an admin-console for an existing service that I want to provide access to by adding login, using our company's OAuth 2.0 service. I want to use Apigee here, so that the web-app with the admin-console does not have to implement the login-logic.
My idea was to use AuthorizationCode flow and let Apigee manage the tokens and I looked into https://github.com/apigee/api-platform-samples/tree/master/sample-proxies/oauth-login-app, but I really can't see how our existing OAuth service fits in.
Is there a sample like that? Perhaps using Google's or Facebook's OAuth service to authenticate the user?
First, Apigee needs to be a proxy into the admin-console. This means that all traffic to the admin-console has to go through Apigee. Otherwise, you won't be able to enforce authentication.
Second, there are a couple different options for integrating with the external oauth 2.0 service. Apigee has the ability to store an external access token and use it as its own, or Apigee can generate a token and store the external access token as a custom attribute.
High level thoughts on how the Apigee proxy could look like:
ProxyEndpoint - endpoint exposed to clients connecting to admin console
TargetEndpoint (not shown in that oauth login-app example) - endpoint for the actual admin console
The flows that execute in the Apigee proxy before sending the request to admin-console will need to implement logic that checks an authentication token. If it's valid, let the request pass onto the TargetEndpoint (admin-console). If the request isn't valid, step through logic that goes calls the external oauth 2.0 server's auth code flow. This will require the following:
Apigee needs to be registered with external oauth 2.0 server.
Logic needs to be built in this proxy to support the redirection based flow of authorization code grant_type (obtaining auth code, receiving the auth code, obtaining token --> all while being redirection based and transparent to user).
In addition to #2, Apigee will need to store the external token as custom attribute and expose the apigee token, or store the external token for verification purposes later on. http://apigee.com/docs/api-services/content/authorize-requests-using-oauth-20 (see Delegating token management). After the token is stored, you'd need to respond with another 302 redirect to the initial uri + token so the request can pass through to admin-console as an authenticated request.
#2 isn't exactly straight-forward and there won't be an example proxy that shows this implementation. If the oauth 2.0 service supported a password grant, it may simplify the implementation, but allows the credentials to pass through apigee and not directly with the authorization server.
I'm tasked with creating a service-oriented ecosystem for a client. The whole thing is going to be REST based and built in ASP.NET, but my question is technology-agnostic. We want to have a centralized authentication service that issues JWT tokens and claims that are trusted by the other services in the environment.
My issue is this - what's the first thing that a web client (browser) requests? All of the diagrams I've seen (I'll try to add a couple of example links) make it seems as if the client needs to be self-aware and realize that they're going to need a token before they make the first request to the functional REST service, which seems, well, janky to me.
The way I want it to work is that they just attempt to access the secured resource, but there's no auth token with the request my REST service challenge them for user/password, but then delegate the authentication to my auth service. So:
Browser requests restricted resource on REST service
REST service returns 401
Browser gathers credentials, sends to same web service
REST service connects to the authentication service, passing along the Auth header from the client's request
Auth service creates the JWT token and returns it to the REST service
REST service validates the JWT and replaces the Auth header with the JWT token
JWT token is persisted for subsequent requests, up to expy setting
...am I completely off about this? Does the web client need to know that there's a separate auth service involved and make one request there to get their JWT, and then a second request for the REST resource passing the JWT? That seems clunky to me, I hope that's not the idea.
Also, another n00b question - is the JWT token automagically kept by the web clients and re-sent with every request so I don't have to go through the auth service step each time? Is that what the expiration setting is for?
TIA.
See figure 1 here for an example of what I mean: http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/hh446531.aspx
Starting with your last question will make the rest of the answers clearer:
"...is the JWT token automagically kept by the web clients and re-sent with every request.." - The idea is to issue JWT once, send it to the client so client can save it and send it on each subsequent request. This way your front-end app will send username and password just once and then use JWT for authentication. You will have to store the JWT using browser storage (local or session) or cookies (common fallback for older browsers).
"...Does the web client need to know that there's a separate auth service involved..." - You will need to send the username and password to a service in order to have the JWT issued. You could implement it with just one request, but you need to send credentials to the service (provided by the user), receive JWT as part of response and store it (as above). It might be easier to do it on a separate request, depending on requirements and implementation.