I used the MSDN guide on creating Custom Extraction Rule, which presents this example (Extract method):
public override void Extract(object sender, ExtractionEventArgs e)
{
if (e.Response.HtmlDocument != null)
{
foreach (HtmlTag tag in e.Response.HtmlDocument.GetFilteredHtmlTags(new string[] { "input" }))
{
if (String.Equals(tag.GetAttributeValueAsString("name"), Name, StringComparison.InvariantCultureIgnoreCase))
{
string formFieldValue = tag.GetAttributeValueAsString("value");
if (formFieldValue == null)
{
formFieldValue = String.Empty;
}
// add the extracted value to the web performance test context
e.WebTest.Context.Add("someNameHere", formFieldValue);
e.Success = true;
return;
}
}
}
// If the extraction fails, set the error text that the user sees
e.Success = false;
e.Message = String.Format(CultureInfo.CurrentCulture, "Not Found: {0}", Name);
}
However, I just don't know how to use access the someNameHere in the Web Test and add it to the QueryString as a parameter.
Any help would be greatly appreciated.
Right-click on the request in the web test and select "Add URL query string parameter". Alter the name as needed and into the value field enter {{someNameHere}}. The doubled curly braces call for a context parameter value to be inserted. The doubled curly braces can be used to insert the value of a context parameter into many other places in a web test. Note that strings such as text{{someNameHere}}moretext can be used to join context values to other strings.
Related
I have an Alfresco workflow form with an association field that allow the selection of multiple users. The field UI definition is implicit (the model define the association).
I want to initialize that field with the current logged in user.
I've tried using a form filter and using FieldUtils.makeAssociationField() using the NodeRef as a value then form.addField() but this leads to an UnsupportedOperationException.
Although I use the same technique to initialize a property field without trouble.
Can anyone point me to a workaround?
private void initInitatorNodeRef(final Form form)
{
final String userName = AuthenticationUtil.getFullyAuthenticatedUser();
if (userName != null)
{
final NodeRef person = personService.getPerson(userName);
if (person != null)
{
final AssociationDefinition definition =
serviceRegistry.getDictionaryService().getAssociation(MywfModel.ASSOC_AUTHORS);
final Field field =
FieldUtils.makeAssociationField(
definition, person, null, serviceRegistry.getNamespaceService(),
serviceRegistry.getDictionaryService());
form.addField(field);
}
else
{
throw new RuntimeException("Person not found.");
}
}
else
{
throw new RuntimeException("UserName not found.");
}
}
A workaround has been found:
The form.addData() was throwing an exception on some Map.put call, for some reason in the context of an association, the map of field data cannot be updated. I replaced the line above with the inner method form.getFormData().addFieldData() to force the overwrite parameter to true and it works. The association is correctly initialized now in my form.
I have written a custom ASP.NET sitemap provider, it works well but if I add a query parameter to a virtual path SiteMap.CurrentNode returns null - it does not find the page. I've put breakpoints in all my code and never once does it enter my virtual path provider with a query parameter. What am I missing here?
I found an answer to my question and post it here for later use. Seems the sitemap provider always uses the path without the querystring parameters when lookup up matching paths. The trick is to not use Reqest.RawUrl in your overriden SiteMapProvider.CurrentNode() function but rather use Request.Path ; I've posted my solution below:
public class CustomSiteMapProvider : SiteMapProvider {
// Implement the CurrentNode property.
public override SiteMapNode CurrentNode {
get {
var currentUrl = FindCurrentUrl();
// Find the SiteMapNode that represents the current page.
var currentNode = FindSiteMapNode(currentUrl);
return currentNode;
}
}
// Get the URL of the currently displayed page.
string FindCurrentUrl() {
try {
// The current HttpContext.
var currentContext = HttpContext.Current;
if (currentContext != null) return currentContext.Request.Path;
throw new Exception("HttpContext.Current is Invalid");
} catch (Exception e) {
throw new NotSupportedException("This provider requires a valid context.", e);
}
}
...
We currently have two different servers on same domain. But one server resolves
#Url.Content("~/api/User")'
as
http://domain.com/virtualdirectory/api/User
where as other server doesnt resolve it absolutely; rather it resolves it relatively like
api/user
The code base is same and we are using MVC4. I am not sure as to where we went wrong or if there is any IIS/DNS settings that need to be done in order to get this fixed.
All help is appreciated; thanks :)
This is related with the IIS Rewriting module in your IIS web server that return the path to http://domain.com/virtualdirectory/api/User
Take a look on the part of source code of #Url.Content below:
private static string GenerateClientUrlInternal(HttpContextBase httpContext, string contentPath)
{
if (String.IsNullOrEmpty(contentPath))
{
return contentPath;
}
// can't call VirtualPathUtility.IsAppRelative since it throws on some inputs
bool isAppRelative = contentPath[0] == '~';
if (isAppRelative)
{
string absoluteContentPath = VirtualPathUtility.ToAbsolute(contentPath, httpContext.Request.ApplicationPath);
return GenerateClientUrlInternal(httpContext, absoluteContentPath);
}
// we only want to manipulate the path if URL rewriting is active for this request, else we risk breaking the generated URL
bool wasRequestRewritten = _urlRewriterHelper.WasRequestRewritten(httpContext);
if (!wasRequestRewritten)
{
return contentPath;
}
// Since the rawUrl represents what the user sees in his browser, it is what we want to use as the base
// of our absolute paths. For example, consider mysite.example.com/foo, which is internally
// rewritten to content.example.com/mysite/foo. When we want to generate a link to ~/bar, we want to
// base it from / instead of /foo, otherwise the user ends up seeing mysite.example.com/foo/bar,
// which is incorrect.
string relativeUrlToDestination = MakeRelative(httpContext.Request.Path, contentPath);
string absoluteUrlToDestination = MakeAbsolute(httpContext.Request.RawUrl, relativeUrlToDestination);
return absoluteUrlToDestination;
}
Use the codes below to check whether your web servers are having the URL rewritten:
bool requestWasRewritten = (httpWorkerRequest != null && httpWorkerRequest.GetServerVariable("IIS_WasUrlRewritten") != null);
And Also:
private volatile bool _urlRewriterIsTurnedOnCalculated = false;
private bool _urlRewriterIsTurnedOnValue;
private object _lockObject = new object();
private bool IsUrlRewriterTurnedOn(HttpContextBase httpContext)
{
// Need to do double-check locking because a single instance of this class is shared in the entire app domain (see PathHelpers)
if (!_urlRewriterIsTurnedOnCalculated)
{
lock (_lockObject)
{
if (!_urlRewriterIsTurnedOnCalculated)
{
HttpWorkerRequest httpWorkerRequest = (HttpWorkerRequest)httpContext.GetService(typeof(HttpWorkerRequest));
//bool urlRewriterIsEnabled = (httpWorkerRequest != null && httpWorkerRequest.GetServerVariable(UrlRewriterEnabledServerVar) != null);
bool urlRewriterIsEnabled = (httpWorkerRequest != null && httpWorkerRequest.GetServerVariable("IIS_UrlRewriteModule") != null);
_urlRewriterIsTurnedOnValue = urlRewriterIsEnabled;
_urlRewriterIsTurnedOnCalculated = true;
}
}
}
return _urlRewriterIsTurnedOnValue;
}
In summary, If both requestWasRewritten and IsUrlRewriterTurnedOn
return true, that means one of your web server has IIS Rewrite Module
turned on and running while the other one doesn't have.
For more details on ASP.NET MVC source codes, please refer to this link:
http://aspnetwebstack.codeplex.com/
Hope it helps!
I am writing an MVC 4 application, and using Entity Framework 4.1. I have a validation question which I cannot seem to find the answer to.
Essentially, I have an Entity (object) called "Product" which contains a field "Name", which must follow strict naming conventions which are defined in a separate Entity called "NamingConvention". When the user enters a value, the system needs to check it against the rules established in the NamingConvention entity, and return an error if need be.
Where should this validation be done, and how? I need to check the NamingConvention entity when doing the validation, which means I would need a database context since I'm referencing a different entity. Is there any validation method which won't require me to create a new context? I was thinking of doing the validation in the Controller, since it already creates a data context, but this doesn't seem like the right place to do it.
Thanks for any help!
I have done things like this using a JQuery post (ajax) call from the webpage where the name is being entered. You then post (the value of name) to a method on your controller which can return a JSON value that contains a flag saying if the validation passed and also a message that you want to return to your user. For example :
Javascript in webpage :
$("#name").change(function () {
var nameVal = $(this).val();
$.post(getRoot() + "/NameController/ValidateName", { name: nameVal },
function (data) {
if (data.valid == "true") {
alert("A valid name was chosen");
} else
{
alert(data.message);
}
}, "json");
});
Controller (NameController) Code :
[HttpPost]
public ActionResult ValidateName(string name)
{
// actual validation carried out in a static utility class (Utils.IsNameValid)
// if you are loading the same validation rules from your table each time
// consider caching the data in the application cache or a static List.
bool nameIsValid = Utils.IsNameValid(name, out string ErrorMessage);
JsonResult result = new JsonResult();
result.Data = new { valid = (nameIsValid "true" : "false"), message = ErrorMessage };
return result;
}
I'm using EF 5 but believe you can use this method ... apologies in advance if I'm misleading you with this answer.
You could do the validation within your context (or a context decorator)
public override int SaveChanges()
{
var products = this.GetChangedProducts();
foreach (var product in products)
{
this.ValidateName(product);
}
return base.SaveChanges();
}
private IEnumerable<Product> GetChangedProducts()
{
return (
from entry in _context.ChangeTracker.Entries()
where entry.State != EntityState.Unchanged
select entry.Entity)
.OfType<Product>();
}
private void ValidateName(Product product)
{
//validate here
}
I'm trying to do something which should be very simple...I have a site with a dropdown from which the user selects a group. Thereafter, the user navigates through the site using querystring arguments from menus. So I want the caching to be dependent on the querystring - this seems to work. I also want the cache to be dependent on the group that they selected.
But when the querystring is empty, neither cache element seems to work - the page is just whatever the version was for the last selected group. My cache directive looks like this:
<%# OutputCache Duration="300" VaryByCustom="currentAtomId" VaryByParam="documentId;folderId;sectionId;renderMode;typeId" %>
My varyByCustom code looks like this:
public override string GetVaryByCustomString(HttpContext context, string custom)
{
switch (custom)
{
case "currentAtomId":
var currentAtomId = SecurityManifold.Create().CurrentAtomId;
var returnString = currentAtomId == null ? Guid.NewGuid().ToString() : currentAtomId.ToString();
return returnString;
default:
throw new ArgumentException(string.Format("Argument '{0}' is not a valid cache argument.", custom));
}
}
The call to CurrentAtomId boils down to this:
public static int? GetCurrentAtomIdFromContext(HttpContext context)
{
int entityId;
if (context.Session == null)
{
throw new InvalidOperationException("Session is null");
}
var sessionEntityId = context.Session["CurrentEntityId"];
if (sessionEntityId == null || string.IsNullOrEmpty(sessionEntityId.ToString()))
{
return null;
}
if (!int.TryParse(sessionEntityId.ToString(), out entityId))
{
return null;
}
return entityId;
}
Finally, the code which specifies the CurrentEntityId is this:
var selectedEntityId = this.lstSecurityEntities.SelectedValue;
if (string.IsNullOrEmpty(selectedEntityId))
{
return;
}
Session["CurrentEntityId"] = selectedEntityId;
var possibleQueryString = Request.QueryString.ToString();
if (!string.IsNullOrEmpty(possibleQueryString))
{
possibleQueryString = "?" + possibleQueryString;
}
Response.Redirect("default.aspx" + possibleQueryString);
I'm baffled. Any thoughts would be appreciated.
I eventually determined the problem - when output caching is placed at a PAGE level (as opposed to a control level), the session is not available, and throws an exception. Because this exception is occurring in Global ABOVE the global error handler, it fails silently. I eventually figured this out by wrapping a try-catch block around the cache key generation code in VaryByCustomString and Response.Write-ing it out.
What a beatdown...at any rate, the solution is to implement caching at the control level, which unfortunately is a lot more work because the pieces of the page work together...but it's better than no caching. I hope this helps save somebody else some time.
Bottom Line: for varyByCustomString in global.asax - SESSION IS NOT AVAILABLE WHEN CACHING AT THE PAGE LEVEL.