FB signed_request issue ASP.net c# - asp.net

I want to access signed_request param on my asp.net page. FB is redirecting the request successfully to the right page. However, it is a GET request thus no signed_request param is passed.
Please help me out.
Trying to read the value using Request.Form["signed_request"] but it is blank.
Please let me know if this is due to wrong configuration or due to some change at FB end. How do I get this working.
Thanks
Syed Adil Umair

As you probably already know, when your page tab app is firstly loaded, Facebook makes a POST request to the URL you specified in application's Page Tab URL (or Secure Page Tab URL) along with the signed_request string. This is why its value is not null on your landing page. But when you click on a link to navigate to another page inside your tab app, it suddenly becomes null. This is how it should be because you are making a GET request with no signed_request. To make your other pages able to access signed_request, you need to store it. I came up with the following code which works for me but if someone comes with a better solution, I would be glad to hear it:
public static string StoredSignedRequest
{
get
{
string signedRequest = HttpContext.Current.Request["signed_request"];
// If signed_request is provided, store it
if (!String.IsNullOrEmpty(signedRequest))
{
WriteCookie("fb-app-signed-request", signedRequest);
return signedRequest;
}
else
{
return ReadCookie("fb-app-signed-request");
}
}
}
public static void WriteCookie(string strCookieName, string strCookieValue)
{
var hcCookie = new HttpCookie(strCookieName, strCookieValue);
HttpContext.Current.Response.Cookies.Set(hcCookie);
}
public static string ReadCookie(string strCookieName)
{
foreach (string strCookie in HttpContext.Current.Response.Cookies.AllKeys)
{
if (strCookie == strCookieName)
{
return HttpContext.Current.Response.Cookies[strCookie].Value;
}
}
foreach (string strCookie in HttpContext.Current.Request.Cookies.AllKeys)
{
if (strCookie == strCookieName)
{
return HttpContext.Current.Request.Cookies[strCookie].Value;
}
}
return null;
}
Then you can use a JSON parser to parse the value of StoredSignedRequest. In my case, I use Newtonsoft:
public static JObject GetSignedRequestJsonObject()
{
string signed_request = StoredSignedRequest;
if (String.IsNullOrEmpty(signed_request))
{
// If signed_request is null on all pages except the landing page, add the following code to all pages so that it is stored:
// <input type="hidden" name="signed_request" value="<%= FacebookAppHelper.StoredSignedRequest %>" />
return null;
}
string payload = signed_request.Split('.')[1];
UTF8Encoding encoding = new UTF8Encoding();
string decodedJson = payload.Replace("=", string.Empty).Replace('-', '+').Replace('_', '/');
byte[] base64JsonArray = Convert.FromBase64String(decodedJson.PadRight(decodedJson.Length + (4 - decodedJson.Length % 4) % 4, '='));
string json = encoding.GetString(base64JsonArray);
return JObject.Parse(json);
}
The critical part is to not forget to add the hidden field (see commented line above) to all pages that you plan to access using a GET request inside your page tab application.

Related

Can this be done using ASP.NET URL Rewriting

There are about 1700 articles listed on my website created using ASP.NET 4.0 Web Forms. These articles have a url format as:
http://www.mymymyarticles.com/Article.aspx?ID=400
I have explored ASP.NET Friendly URLs as well IIS URL Rewrite. These extensions are great but once a rule is created, they treat all url's generically.
Is it possible that I manually generate my own url string for every url that exists on my website? For eg:
I want to permanent redirect http://www.mymymyarticles.com/Article.aspx?ID=400 to http://www.mymymyarticles.com/this-is-a-very-long-url whereas
http://www.mymymyarticles.com/Article.aspx?ID=500 can be redirected to http://www.mymymyarticles.com/article/short-url and
http://www.mymymyarticles.com/Article.aspx?ID=523 can be redirected to http://www.mymymyarticles.com/very-short-url
So you can see there is no uniformity in the url's that I want to manually generate. Basically I want full control over the url's. How can I go about this. Will it affect performance?
Any examples are appreciated.
Do you have a way of mapping an ID to the url of the new page? If that is the case, you could probably achieve this with ASP.NET Routing. What I would do is start with defining a route:
var route = routes.MapRoute(
"LegacyDocument",
"Articles.aspx{*pathInfo}",
null,
constraints: new { pathInfo = new LegacyDocumentRouteConstraint() }
);
route.RouteHandler = new RedirectRouteHandler();
This route merely captures any requests for /articles.aspx, but it has a constraint and a custom route handler.
The purpose of the constraint is to ensure we at least have the ID query string property and it is a number:
public class LegacyDocumentRouteConstraint : IRouteConstraint
{
public bool Match(HttpContextBase httpContext, Route route, string parameterName, RouteValueDictionary values, RouteDirection routeDirection)
{
if (routeDirection == RouteDirection.UrlGeneration)
{
// Don't both doing anything while we generate links.
return false;
}
string id = httpContext.Request.QueryString["id"];
if (string.IsNullOrWhiteSpace(id))
{
// No query string argument was provided.
return false;
}
int documentId;
if (!int.TryParse(id, out documentId))
{
// The Id is not a number.
return false;
}
// Set the output document Id in the route values.
values["documentId"] = documentId;
return true;
}
}
If the Id was not provided, or was not a number, we can't match to an existing document, so the route will be skipped over. But when the constraint is satisfied, we store a variable in the route values values["documentId"] = documentId so we can then use it again (without having to parse it from the query string again) later in the route handler:
public class RedirectRouteHandler : IRouteHandler
{
public IHttpHandler GetHttpHandler(RequestContext context)
{
int documentId = (int)context.RouteData.Values["documentId"];
return new RedirectLegacyDocumentHttpHandler(documentId);
}
private class RedirectLegacyDocumentHttpHandler : IHttpHandler
{
private int _documentId;
public RedirectHttpHandler(int documentId)
{
_documentId = documentId;
}
public bool IsReusable { get { return false; } }
public void ProcessRequest(HttpContext context)
{
var response = context.Response;
string url = ResolveNewDocumentUrl();
if (url == null)
{
// Issue a 410 to say the document is no longer available?
response.StatusCode = 410;
}
else
{
// Issue a 301 to the new location.
response.RedirectPermanent(url);
}
}
public string ResolveNewDocumentUrl()
{
// Resolve to a new url using _documentId
}
}
}
Route handlers perform the logic of mapping from ASP.NET routing back into the IHttpHandler logic of the ASP.NET runtime. In normal MVC, this would map to the standard MvcHandler which invokes controllers, but in our case, we need only to issue a redirect.
In the route handler, we grab our document Id from the route values, and create a new HTTP handler which performs the actual redirect. You'll need to plumb in the bit which you resolve what the actual new url would be (ResolveNewDocumentUrl), but generally it will resolve the url, if the url comes back as null, we'll issue a HTTP 410 Gone response to say to clients (and more importantly crawlers) that the item is no longer there, or it will issue an HTTP 301 Permanent Redirect with the appropriate location header to the new url.
I had overcome this by creating an xml file on the server with the below schema
<URLMapper>
<Code>1</Code>
<OLDURL>%Oldurl.aspx%</OLDURL>
<NEWURL>default.aspx</NEWURL>
<PermanentRedirect>true</PermanentRedirect>
<Order>1</Order>
<Status>true</Status>
</URLMapper>
Loaded this in Application_Start Event to an application variable (in the form of a datatable).
And in the Begin Request --
void Application_BeginRequest(object sender, EventArgs e)
{
if (Application["URLMapper"] == null) return;
DataTable dtURLs = Application["URLMapper"] as DataTable;
if (dtURLs.Rows.Count == 0) return;
string OrigUrl = HttpContext.Current.Request.Url.ToString().ToLower().Replace("'", "`");
DataRow[] drFound = dtURLs.Select("Status = true and '" + OrigUrl.Trim() + "' like oldurl", "Order",DataViewRowState.CurrentRows);
if (drFound.Length == 0) return;
string OldURL = drFound[0]["OldURL"].ToString().Replace("%","");
Response.RedirectPermanent(OrigUrl.Replace(OldURL, drFound[0]["NewURL"].ToString().Trim()), true);
return;
}

Determing the physical path of a user friendly url

I have been asked to look at updating an old ASP.net Web Forms application to ASP.net 4.5; specifically to implement Microsoft's 'User Friendly' routing mechanism (NuGet Package Microsoft.AspNet.FriendlyUrls).
Generally, the upgrade was straightforward, but I am left with one problem.
The original developer attached/associated 'meta data' XML files to many of the web pages.. For example, /Products/Tables/Oak.aspx might also have the following meta file /Products/Tables/Oak.aspx.meta
When the page loads, it 'looks' for the meta file and loads it. In a non-rewritten URL environment, this was easy...
string metaUrl = Page.Request.Url.AbsolutePath + ".meta";
string metaPath = Page.Server.MapPath(metaUrl);
If (System.IO.File.Exists(metaPath)) {
LoadMetaFile(metaPath);
}
In a 'Friendly URL' environment, this is not so easy as the original URL might be rewritten to /Products/Tables/Oak or maybe even rewritten completely via a custom MapPageRoute() definition.
Does anyone know if there a way that I can find/determine the 'true' path of the page?
The solution posted by Petriq ASP.NET WebForms: Request.GetFriendlyUrlFileVirtualPath() returns empty string works perfectly in my scenario.
For reference, here is Petriq's code for his HttpRequest extension method:
using System.Web;
using System.Web.Routing;
using Microsoft.AspNet.FriendlyUrls;
namespace Utils.Extensions
{
public static class HttpRequestExtensions
{
public static string GetFileVirtualPathFromFriendlyUrl(this HttpRequest request)
{
string ret = string.Empty;
ret = request.GetFriendlyUrlFileVirtualPath();
if (ret == string.Empty)
{
foreach (RouteBase r in RouteTable.Routes)
{
if (r.GetType() == typeof(Route))
{
Route route = (Route)r;
// Following line modified for case-insensitive comparison
if (String.Compare("/" + route.Url, request.Path, true) == 0)
{
if (route.RouteHandler.GetType() == typeof(PageRouteHandler))
{
PageRouteHandler handler = (PageRouteHandler)route.RouteHandler;
ret = handler.VirtualPath;
}
break;
}
}
}
}
return ret;
}
}
}

#Url.Content doesnt resolve absolute path on one server but does on another

We currently have two different servers on same domain. But one server resolves
#Url.Content("~/api/User")'
as
http://domain.com/virtualdirectory/api/User
where as other server doesnt resolve it absolutely; rather it resolves it relatively like
api/user
The code base is same and we are using MVC4. I am not sure as to where we went wrong or if there is any IIS/DNS settings that need to be done in order to get this fixed.
All help is appreciated; thanks :)
This is related with the IIS Rewriting module in your IIS web server that return the path to http://domain.com/virtualdirectory/api/User
Take a look on the part of source code of #Url.Content below:
private static string GenerateClientUrlInternal(HttpContextBase httpContext, string contentPath)
{
if (String.IsNullOrEmpty(contentPath))
{
return contentPath;
}
// can't call VirtualPathUtility.IsAppRelative since it throws on some inputs
bool isAppRelative = contentPath[0] == '~';
if (isAppRelative)
{
string absoluteContentPath = VirtualPathUtility.ToAbsolute(contentPath, httpContext.Request.ApplicationPath);
return GenerateClientUrlInternal(httpContext, absoluteContentPath);
}
// we only want to manipulate the path if URL rewriting is active for this request, else we risk breaking the generated URL
bool wasRequestRewritten = _urlRewriterHelper.WasRequestRewritten(httpContext);
if (!wasRequestRewritten)
{
return contentPath;
}
// Since the rawUrl represents what the user sees in his browser, it is what we want to use as the base
// of our absolute paths. For example, consider mysite.example.com/foo, which is internally
// rewritten to content.example.com/mysite/foo. When we want to generate a link to ~/bar, we want to
// base it from / instead of /foo, otherwise the user ends up seeing mysite.example.com/foo/bar,
// which is incorrect.
string relativeUrlToDestination = MakeRelative(httpContext.Request.Path, contentPath);
string absoluteUrlToDestination = MakeAbsolute(httpContext.Request.RawUrl, relativeUrlToDestination);
return absoluteUrlToDestination;
}
Use the codes below to check whether your web servers are having the URL rewritten:
bool requestWasRewritten = (httpWorkerRequest != null && httpWorkerRequest.GetServerVariable("IIS_WasUrlRewritten") != null);
And Also:
private volatile bool _urlRewriterIsTurnedOnCalculated = false;
private bool _urlRewriterIsTurnedOnValue;
private object _lockObject = new object();
private bool IsUrlRewriterTurnedOn(HttpContextBase httpContext)
{
// Need to do double-check locking because a single instance of this class is shared in the entire app domain (see PathHelpers)
if (!_urlRewriterIsTurnedOnCalculated)
{
lock (_lockObject)
{
if (!_urlRewriterIsTurnedOnCalculated)
{
HttpWorkerRequest httpWorkerRequest = (HttpWorkerRequest)httpContext.GetService(typeof(HttpWorkerRequest));
//bool urlRewriterIsEnabled = (httpWorkerRequest != null && httpWorkerRequest.GetServerVariable(UrlRewriterEnabledServerVar) != null);
bool urlRewriterIsEnabled = (httpWorkerRequest != null && httpWorkerRequest.GetServerVariable("IIS_UrlRewriteModule") != null);
_urlRewriterIsTurnedOnValue = urlRewriterIsEnabled;
_urlRewriterIsTurnedOnCalculated = true;
}
}
}
return _urlRewriterIsTurnedOnValue;
}
In summary, If both requestWasRewritten and IsUrlRewriterTurnedOn
return true, that means one of your web server has IIS Rewrite Module
turned on and running while the other one doesn't have.
For more details on ASP.NET MVC source codes, please refer to this link:
http://aspnetwebstack.codeplex.com/
Hope it helps!

How do I get ASP.NET WebForms Routing to route .asmx JSON calls properly?

I am attempting to implement multi-tenancy in a legacy ASP.NET WebForms app. I want the URL to indicate the proper client, like so:
http://example.com/client_name/Default.aspx
http://example.com/client_name/MyWebService.asmx
However, I cannot get it to route the .asmx's properly. This routing rule picks up all incoming urls just fine:
routes.Add("ClientSelector", new System.Web.Routing.Route
(
"{client}/{*path}",
routeHandler: new ClientRoute()
));
But I am having issues with handling .asmx calls. Here's my IRouteHandler, below. The error I get is:
A first chance exception of type 'System.Web.Services.Protocols.SoapException' occurred in System.Web.Services.dll
Additional information: Unable to handle request without a valid action parameter. Please supply a valid soap action.
It's supposed to be JSON, but for some reason it's not working. I am setting the content-type - if I send this same exact request without routing, it works fine.
public class ClientRoute : System.Web.Routing.IRouteHandler
{
private string m_Path;
private string m_Client;
public ClientRoute() { }
public bool IsReusable { get { return true; } }
public IHttpHandler GetHttpHandler(System.Web.Routing.RequestContext requestContext)
{
this.m_Path = (string)requestContext.RouteData.Values["path"];
this.m_Client = (string)requestContext.RouteData.Values["client"];
string virtualPath = "~/" + this.m_Path;
bool shouldValidate = false;
if (shouldValidate && !UrlAuthorizationModule.CheckUrlAccessForPrincipal(
virtualPath, requestContext.HttpContext.User,
requestContext.HttpContext.Request.HttpMethod))
{
requestContext.HttpContext.Response.StatusCode = (int)HttpStatusCode.Unauthorized;
requestContext.HttpContext.Response.End();
return null;
}
else
{
HttpContext.Current.RewritePath(virtualPath);
HttpContext.Current.Items.Add("Client", this.m_Client);
if (virtualPath.EndsWith(".aspx"))
return (IHttpHandler)BuildManager.CreateInstanceFromVirtualPath(virtualPath, typeof(Page));
else
{
var asmxPos = virtualPath.IndexOf(".asmx", StringComparison.OrdinalIgnoreCase);
if (asmxPos >= 0)
{
// What goes here? This isn't working...
var asmxOnlyVirtualPath = virtualPath.Substring(0, asmxPos + 5);
return new System.Web.Services.Protocols.WebServiceHandlerFactory().GetHandler(
HttpContext.Current, HttpContext.Current.Request.HttpMethod, asmxOnlyVirtualPath, HttpContext.Current.Server.MapPath(asmxOnlyVirtualPath));
}
else
return new StaticRoute();
}
}
}
}
Relevant links:
Getting ScriptHandlerFactory handler
The open source http://www.teamlab.com project is built with ASP.NET Webforms, and uses a multitenant/saas model. I noticed you posted another question inquiring about multitenancy.
Perhaps you can look into their code for reference ideas.
I tried my best, ended up failing, and converted all my web services to WCF .svc services instead.

Output Caching using BOTH varybyparam and varybycustom

I'm trying to do something which should be very simple...I have a site with a dropdown from which the user selects a group. Thereafter, the user navigates through the site using querystring arguments from menus. So I want the caching to be dependent on the querystring - this seems to work. I also want the cache to be dependent on the group that they selected.
But when the querystring is empty, neither cache element seems to work - the page is just whatever the version was for the last selected group. My cache directive looks like this:
<%# OutputCache Duration="300" VaryByCustom="currentAtomId" VaryByParam="documentId;folderId;sectionId;renderMode;typeId" %>
My varyByCustom code looks like this:
public override string GetVaryByCustomString(HttpContext context, string custom)
{
switch (custom)
{
case "currentAtomId":
var currentAtomId = SecurityManifold.Create().CurrentAtomId;
var returnString = currentAtomId == null ? Guid.NewGuid().ToString() : currentAtomId.ToString();
return returnString;
default:
throw new ArgumentException(string.Format("Argument '{0}' is not a valid cache argument.", custom));
}
}
The call to CurrentAtomId boils down to this:
public static int? GetCurrentAtomIdFromContext(HttpContext context)
{
int entityId;
if (context.Session == null)
{
throw new InvalidOperationException("Session is null");
}
var sessionEntityId = context.Session["CurrentEntityId"];
if (sessionEntityId == null || string.IsNullOrEmpty(sessionEntityId.ToString()))
{
return null;
}
if (!int.TryParse(sessionEntityId.ToString(), out entityId))
{
return null;
}
return entityId;
}
Finally, the code which specifies the CurrentEntityId is this:
var selectedEntityId = this.lstSecurityEntities.SelectedValue;
if (string.IsNullOrEmpty(selectedEntityId))
{
return;
}
Session["CurrentEntityId"] = selectedEntityId;
var possibleQueryString = Request.QueryString.ToString();
if (!string.IsNullOrEmpty(possibleQueryString))
{
possibleQueryString = "?" + possibleQueryString;
}
Response.Redirect("default.aspx" + possibleQueryString);
I'm baffled. Any thoughts would be appreciated.
I eventually determined the problem - when output caching is placed at a PAGE level (as opposed to a control level), the session is not available, and throws an exception. Because this exception is occurring in Global ABOVE the global error handler, it fails silently. I eventually figured this out by wrapping a try-catch block around the cache key generation code in VaryByCustomString and Response.Write-ing it out.
What a beatdown...at any rate, the solution is to implement caching at the control level, which unfortunately is a lot more work because the pieces of the page work together...but it's better than no caching. I hope this helps save somebody else some time.
Bottom Line: for varyByCustomString in global.asax - SESSION IS NOT AVAILABLE WHEN CACHING AT THE PAGE LEVEL.

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