Well, recaptcha is used twice on site (both in process of registration). First time it works perfect, but second i got exception above (When GetCaptchaVerificatoinHelper method is called).
Also: first time recaptcha is located in form (page) which is loaded synchronously, second time recaptcha is located in PartialView, which is updated via ajax. How to fix this? Also, it would be nice if anybody gave me a reasons this happening. Thanks in advance.
This is problem method:
public Task<ActionResult> SendSmsAgain(CaptchaStubViewModel viewmodel)
{
viewmodel.NotificationMessage = null;
return Task<ActionResult>.Factory.StartNew(() =>
{
if (!HttpContext.Request.IsAjaxRequest())
return null;
var val = WebConfigurationManager.AppSettings["recaptchaPrivateKey"];
RecaptchaVerificationHelper helper = this.GetRecaptchaVerificationHelper(val);
viewmodel.CaptchaValue = helper.Response;
if (string.IsNullOrEmpty(helper.Response))
{ ModelState.AddModelError("CaptchaValue", "You should insert Captcha value to get an SMS");}...}
Update
Has rewritten logic without ajax verification, but this doesn't still work.
Btw: Second captcha is used after redirection. Can anybody help me? I still get the same error.
According to recaptcha.codeplex, recaptcha hasn't supported verification through ajax yet.
Related
I have passed array as return array($posts,$count) from my ajax file.
now in success function i wnat both this array
How to get this array in my success function
I have written as below but i dont get any this in my console :(
in my ajax_post.php
return array($posts, $count);
jQuery.ajax({
url: 'http://localhost/abc/wp-content/themes/directory/Templates/ajax_post.php',
data: {
'action':'example_ajax_request',
'city' : city
},
success:function(data,count) {
// This outputs the result of the ajax request
console.log(data,count);
//loadPopup(data);
},
error: function(errorThrown){
console.log(errorThrown);
}
});
If your success function is not logging anything at all in your console, then it probably isn't getting called at all.
What do you see in your console? Do you get an error message after your ajax call? What if you try to just copy / past your jQuery.ajax call directly in the console, what happens then?
It's a bit hard to answer here without details of your function on the PHP side and without error messages, but I suggest you try to first return a simple data type from PHP (just a mock value) to make sure your function is indeed getting called and returns properly when called. If that works then you know your problem is with the data type your are returning. If it doesn't, then the problem is with your AJAX call.
You might very well be having problems with AJAX requests because you are doing them on localhost and that might be causing Cross-Domain request problems.
This question / answer actually explains the concept and the solution to that very well. I think you should at least get a reply to your request if you do that : Make cross-domain ajax JSONP request with jQuery
I have two issues here, the second one is irrelevant if the first one got answered, but still technically interesting in my opinion... I will try to be as clear as possible:
1st question: my goal is to fake a Server.Transfer in MVC, is there any descent way to do that, I found quite a few articles about it, but most where about redirecting / rerouting, which is not possible in my case (not that I can think of at least).
Here is the context, we have two versions of our website, a "desktop" one and a mobile one. Our marketing guy wants both versions of the home page to be served on the same url (because the SEO expert said so).
This sounds trivial and simple, and it kind of is in most cases, except... Our desktop site is a .NET 4.0 ASPX site, and our mobile site is MVC, both run in the same site (same project, same apppool, same app).
Because the desktop version represents about 95% of our traffic, this should be the default, and we want to "transfer" (hence same url) from the ASPX code behind to the MVC view only if user is on a mobile device or really wants to see the mobile version. As far as I saw so far, there is no easy way to do that (Server.Transfer only executes a new handler - hence page - if there is a physical file for it). Hence question has any one done that in a proper way so far?
And which brings me to:
2nd question: I did build my own transfer to MVC mechanism, but then figured out that a Response.End() does not actually ends the running thread anymore, does anyone have a clue why?
Obviously, I don't expect any answer out of the blue, so here is what I am doing:
in the page(s) which needs transfering to mobile, I do something like:
protected override void OnPreInit(EventArgs e) {
base.OnPreInit(e);
MobileUri = "/auto/intro/index"; // the MVC url to transfer to
//Identifies correct flow based on certain conditions 1-Desktop 2-Mobile
BrowserCheck.RedirectToMobileIfRequired(MobileUri);
}
and my actual TransferToMobile method called by RedirectToMobileIfRequired (I skipped the detection part as it is quite irrelevant) looks like:
/// <summary>
/// Does a transfer to the mobile (MVC) action. While keeping the same url.
/// </summary>
private static void TransferToMobile(string uri) {
var cUrl = HttpContext.Current.Request.Url;
// build an absolute url from relative uri passed as parameter
string url = String.Format("{0}://{1}/{2}", cUrl.Scheme, cUrl.Authority, uri.TrimStart('/'));
// fake a context for the mvc redirect (in order to read the routeData).
var fakeContext = new HttpContextWrapper(new HttpContext(new HttpRequest("", url, ""), HttpContext.Current.Response));
var routeData = RouteTable.Routes.GetRouteData(fakeContext);
// get the proper controller
IController ctrl = ControllerBuilder.Current.GetControllerFactory().CreateController(fakeContext.Request.RequestContext, (string)routeData.Values["controller"]);
// We still need to set routeData in the request context, as execute does not seem to use the passed route data.
HttpContext.Current.Request.RequestContext.RouteData.DataTokens["Area"] = routeData.DataTokens["Area"];
HttpContext.Current.Request.RequestContext.RouteData.Values["controller"] = routeData.Values["controller"];
HttpContext.Current.Request.RequestContext.RouteData.Values["action"] = routeData.Values["action"];
// Execute the MVC controller action
ctrl.Execute(new RequestContext(new HttpContextWrapper(HttpContext.Current), routeData));
if (ctrl is IDisposable) {
((IDisposable)ctrl).Dispose(); // does not help
}
// end the request.
HttpContext.Current.Response.End();
// fakeContext.Response.End(); // does not add anything
// HttpContext.Current.Response.Close(); // does not help
// fakeContext.Response.Close(); // does not help
// Thread.CurrentThread.Abort(); // causes infinite loading in FF
}
At this point, I would expect the Response.End() call to end the thread as well (and it does if I skip the whole faking the controller execution bit) but it doesn't.
I therefore suspect that either my faked context (was the only way I found to be able to passed my current context with a new url) or the controller prevents the thread to be killed.
fakeContext.Response is same as CurrentContext.Response, and the few attempts at ending the fake context's response or killing the thread didn't really help me.
Whatever code is running after the Response.End() will NOT actually be rendered to the client (which is a small victory), as the Response stream (and the connection, no "infinite loading" in the client) is being closed. But code is still running and that is no good (also obviously generates loads of errors when trying to write the ASPX page, write headers, etc.).
So any new lead would be more than welcome!
To sum it up:
- does anyone have a less hacky way to achieve sharing a ASPX page and a MVC view on the same url?
- if not, does anyone have a clue how I can ensure that my Response is really being ended?
Many thanks in advance!
Well,
for whoever is interested, I at least have answer to question 1 :).
When I first worked on that feature, I looked at the following (and very close) question:
How to simulate Server.Transfer in ASP.NET MVC?
And tried both the Transfer Method created by Stan (using httpHandler.ProcessRequest) and Server.TransferRequest methods. Both had desadvantages for me:
the first one does not work in IIS, (because I need to call that in a page, and that seems too late already).
the second one makes it terribly annoying for developers who all need to run their site in IIS (no biggy, but still...).
Seeing that my solution obviously wasn't optimal, I had to come back to the IIS solution, which seems to be the neatest for production environment.
This solution worked for a page and triggered an infinite loop on another one...
That's when I got pointed to what I had lazily discarded as not being the cause: our url redirect module. It uses Request.RawUrl to match a rule, and oh surprise, Server.TransferRequest keeps the original Request.RawUrl, while app.Request.Url.AbsolutePath will contain the transfered-to url. So basically our url rewrite module was always redirecting to the original requested which was trying to transfer to the new one, etc.
Changed that in the url rewriting module, and will hope that everything still works like a charm (obviously a lot of testing will follow such a change)...
In order to fix the developers issue, I chose to combine both solutions, which might make it a bit more of a risk for different behaviors between development and production, but that's what we have test servers for...
so here is my transfer method looks like in the end:
Once again this is meant to transfer from an ASPX page to a MVC action, from MVC to MVC you probably don't need anything that complex, as you can use a TransferResult or just return a different view, call another action, etc.
private static void Transfer(string url) {
if (HttpRuntime.UsingIntegratedPipeline) {
// IIS 7 integrated pipeline, does not work in VS dev server.
HttpContext.Current.Server.TransferRequest(url, true);
}
// for VS dev server, does not work in IIS
var cUrl = HttpContext.Current.Request.Url;
// Create URI builder
var uriBuilder = new UriBuilder(cUrl.Scheme, cUrl.Host, cUrl.Port, HttpContext.Current.Request.ApplicationPath);
// Add destination URI
uriBuilder.Path += url;
// Because UriBuilder escapes URI decode before passing as an argument
string path = HttpContext.Current.Server.UrlDecode(uriBuilder.Uri.PathAndQuery);
// Rewrite path
HttpContext.Current.RewritePath(path, true);
IHttpHandler httpHandler = new MvcHttpHandler();
// Process request
httpHandler.ProcessRequest(HttpContext.Current);
}
I haven't done much research, but here's what seems to be happening upon Response.End():
public void End()
{
if (this._context.IsInCancellablePeriod)
{
InternalSecurityPermissions.ControlThread.Assert();
Thread.CurrentThread.Abort(new HttpApplication.CancelModuleException(false));
}
else if (!this._flushing)
{
this.Flush();
this._ended = true;
if (this._context.ApplicationInstance != null)
{
this._context.ApplicationInstance.CompleteRequest();
}
}
}
That could at least provide the "Why" (_context.IsInCancellablePeriod). You could try to trace that using your favourite CLR decompiler.
For school, i have to develop a Twitter client with ASP.NET.
In the app, i have a list of tweets with a delete link. This link is created with the helper Ajax.ActionLink() and i specified a callback function for OnSuccess event.
This link is okay : the action is performed, the callback is triggered BUT i can't access data sent in the Ajax response.
The callback receive only one argument. Here is the dump of this object :
>> Sys.Mvc.AjaxContext
$0: 0
$1: null
$2: Sys.Net.XMLHttpExecutor
$3: Sys.Net.WebRequest
$4: null
Where is my responseText ? I know that the response has a content (according to Chrome developer tools) and i really want to access it.
Bonus : can Ajax client automatically parse the response as JSON (the action returns JSON properly with the JSON method) ?
Thanks ! ;)
The deadline of this school project is over.
I used get_data on the response.
I'm quite disappointed by the lack of documentation for this trivial need. Even now i know the way, i can't find that on MSDN… Such a pity. :(
Back to my precious Ruby on Rails, i feel better.
Good day and thanks for your help anyway ! :)
Try calling get_object() on your AjaxContext to get a javascript object or get_data() to get the text. An easier method though is to have your OnSuccess function take an argument which will be the object returned.
public ActionResult ReturnJson()
{
return Json(new { TestMessage = "Hello, world!" }, JsonRequestBehavior.AllowGet);
}
And the view...
<script type="text/javascript">
function AjaxSuccess(obj) {
alert(obj.TestMessage);
}
</script>
#Ajax.ActionLink("Say Hi", "ReturnJson", new AjaxOptions() { OnSuccess = "AjaxSuccess" })
If you want to access the responseText within your code you do not want to use AJAX(Asynchronous JavaScript And XML), you want to use SJAX (Synchronous JavaScript And XML).
When using AJAX your code will not wait for the responseText it will just continue to execute so if you try referencing it later in your code it may not work as it might not have processed yet.
When using SJAX your code will wait for the responseText before continuing to execute.
I don't use ASP.NET so I can't help with the code.
Here is how it is done in JavaScript: JavaScript - AJAX / SJAX - Submit Form Data to a Script
I'm using mx.rpc.http.HTTPService to retrieve data from a web service. On the initial call to "loadWsData", HTTPservice accurately retrieves all the data.
However, on any and all subsequent calls HTTPService does not accurately retrieve the data; rather it always retrieves the first data set. I've confirmed that the web service is providing accurate data, both from web browsers and a ruby ws client script.
My code is below; any ideas on what could be the problem?
private function loadWsData(id:int):void
{
var webService:HTTPService = new HTTPService();
webService.url = "http://xxx.xxx.xxx.xxx:8080/profile/ + id;
webService.method = "GET";
webService.addEventListener(ResultEvent.RESULT, function(event:ResultEvent):void
{
var rawData:String = String(event.result);
var user:Object = JSON.decode(rawData).user; // User object always reflects the first data set retrieved.
....
....
});
webService.send();
}
Not sure what the issue might be, but I have a few suggestions on where to look.
First, there appears to be a bug in your code; the webService.url line is missing a quote mark. That could be messing up the URL you think you are sending. Odd, though, because I don't think what you have shown would compile, so I suspect this is just a cut-and-paste error when you posted this to StackOverflow, but I would trace out that URL just to be sure.
Also, I don't see code to remove the event listener (although it could be in the code you have abbreviated with ellipsis). Is it possible that there are lingering event listeners that are firing in addition to the ones you expect? If the original event listener fires, it will fire with the original data.
Another suggestion: instead of using a closure, try pulling it out to a separate function. That shouldn't be the issue, but maybe scope is playing a role here.
You could try to POST your results.
You might also add an event listener for FAULT, and see if there are any errors being thrown by your service request.
I am using same asp.net page to edit and add data, only with some fields disabled and enabled accordingly. Now when I call webmethod from the add page, it's working fine, but when I call it from edit page, it is not. Though I am using the same javascript function to call the server side method. Please see the code:
.aspx:
function KeyCheck()
{
var KeyID = event.keyCode;
if(KeyID==46)
{
PageMethods.Delete_files(CurrentObj.id);
}
Now when I try to call this same method through edit, its generating following error :
Microsoft JScript runtime error:
Sys.Net.WebServiceFailedException: The
server method 'Delete_files' failed
with the following error:
If you look here they discuss a similar problem. Although the last answer wasn't selected I would still recommend doing what he says. After your first parameter you can pass two function callbacks; one for a successful Ajax call and one for a failure.
Your function should look more like this:
var onDeleteSuccess = function(result) {
//Successfully deleted files, maybe display confirmation to user.
};
var OnDeleteError = function(result) {
//Deleting files unsuccessful, display error to user.
};
PageMethods.Delete_files(CurrentObj.id, onDeleteSuccess, OnDeleteError);
Try adding the "missing" (although they should be optional) parameters to your PageMethod call and see if that solves it.
Edit:
I found a closed bug at connect.microsoft.com about this problem. Have you tried using the page only in IE7? If so, test it in other browsers and see if it works. If it does your only option may be to upgrade IE7 to a newer version or re-open the issue.
Edit after comments:
Try placing this code before your PageMethods.Delete_files function call:
PageMethods.set_path("PageYouAreTransferringto.aspx");
I think the handler you're calling is confused about which server-side page method to call since it appears (to the browser and JavaScript) that you're on a different page.